Thoughts on a post in the xs/xj forum "Piston Ring Questions" from JAXX79. TopcatGr58 made a comment that he heard that ""Doing a valve job, without doing a ring job, could increase blow-by past worn rings.""
No disrespect to anyone, nor am I such a genius as to be able to question anyones mechanical abilities or knowledge, but I have problems with that statement. I too have heard it repeated over the years, but no one has ever been able to demonstrate to my why this is so.
I now question conventional wisdom once again.
Ok, so the time honored theory says.... That if you do a valve job, without doing a ring job, you will now get more blow-by past the worn rings. On the face of it, it might seem to make sense... but does it hold up to scrutiny? Time for a mental exercise.
I have a cylinder on my bike with bad compression. I screw an airhose into the spark plug hole and hear air escaping through the carb and through the crankcase. Ok... I have a bad intake valve, and worn rings (blow-by).
Now.. the theory says that if I fix one, it will increase the leakage of the other.
Now... to test this, I'll go to another bike that is in perfect condition and try to duplicate the problem. I'll use a bike that doesn't have shims for valve adjustment, but uses a set screw and lock nut to change the valve clearences. With this arrangement, it is possable, by overtightening the screw, not only to get zero clearance, but also to hold a valve open. By doing this, I will be simulating the leaking intake valve. Since rings are not adjustable, I will overtighten the exhaust valve... simulating the worn, leaking rings.
I screw in a leakdown tester into the plug hole and apply air. No leaks. I now overtighten the intake valve, popping it open a little until the tester shows a 3% leakage. This represents the leaking valves. I now overtighten the exhaust valve(simulated rings), until it opens and I adjust it so that the leakdown tester shows 6% leakage overall. (3% from the intake valve, and 3% from the "rings")
This is now the starting point for the experiment. I have a cylinder that is leaking from bad valves and "worn rings". The theory says that if I get a valve job... the rings are now going to leak worse. Let's see.
If you recall, I have 6% total leakage. 3% from the intake valve, and 3% from the rings(Exhaust valve). I now do a 'valve job', by loosinen the screw and closing the intake valve. I have now cut off the 3% leakage from the bad valve, leaving only the "bad rings" to leak. And what does the tester show? It now shows 3% leakage left in the cylinder. No "Extra" leakage past the "rings"!
Restated... I put in 3% leakage, added another 3% , and got a total of 6%(bad cylinder) I then took away 3%(valve job), and was left with only the remaining 3%, which didn't (nor couldn't) rise to 4 or 5%(The supposed increased blow-by.)
Now... maybe I'm wrong. If so, can someone point out the flaw in my logic to me?
As I've stated, I've heard this valve job story many times over the years, but no one has ever been able to explain it to me, nor show me anything in the books as to why it is so.
I welcome any thoughts or comments. (Skip the comments about me being a low-grade moron with too much time on my hands... I get enough of that at work)
No disrespect to anyone, nor am I such a genius as to be able to question anyones mechanical abilities or knowledge, but I have problems with that statement. I too have heard it repeated over the years, but no one has ever been able to demonstrate to my why this is so.
I now question conventional wisdom once again.
Ok, so the time honored theory says.... That if you do a valve job, without doing a ring job, you will now get more blow-by past the worn rings. On the face of it, it might seem to make sense... but does it hold up to scrutiny? Time for a mental exercise.
I have a cylinder on my bike with bad compression. I screw an airhose into the spark plug hole and hear air escaping through the carb and through the crankcase. Ok... I have a bad intake valve, and worn rings (blow-by).
Now.. the theory says that if I fix one, it will increase the leakage of the other.
Now... to test this, I'll go to another bike that is in perfect condition and try to duplicate the problem. I'll use a bike that doesn't have shims for valve adjustment, but uses a set screw and lock nut to change the valve clearences. With this arrangement, it is possable, by overtightening the screw, not only to get zero clearance, but also to hold a valve open. By doing this, I will be simulating the leaking intake valve. Since rings are not adjustable, I will overtighten the exhaust valve... simulating the worn, leaking rings.
I screw in a leakdown tester into the plug hole and apply air. No leaks. I now overtighten the intake valve, popping it open a little until the tester shows a 3% leakage. This represents the leaking valves. I now overtighten the exhaust valve(simulated rings), until it opens and I adjust it so that the leakdown tester shows 6% leakage overall. (3% from the intake valve, and 3% from the "rings")
This is now the starting point for the experiment. I have a cylinder that is leaking from bad valves and "worn rings". The theory says that if I get a valve job... the rings are now going to leak worse. Let's see.
If you recall, I have 6% total leakage. 3% from the intake valve, and 3% from the rings(Exhaust valve). I now do a 'valve job', by loosinen the screw and closing the intake valve. I have now cut off the 3% leakage from the bad valve, leaving only the "bad rings" to leak. And what does the tester show? It now shows 3% leakage left in the cylinder. No "Extra" leakage past the "rings"!
Restated... I put in 3% leakage, added another 3% , and got a total of 6%(bad cylinder) I then took away 3%(valve job), and was left with only the remaining 3%, which didn't (nor couldn't) rise to 4 or 5%(The supposed increased blow-by.)
Now... maybe I'm wrong. If so, can someone point out the flaw in my logic to me?
As I've stated, I've heard this valve job story many times over the years, but no one has ever been able to explain it to me, nor show me anything in the books as to why it is so.
I welcome any thoughts or comments. (Skip the comments about me being a low-grade moron with too much time on my hands... I get enough of that at work)
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